So should a noun actually be the same as the object itself?
This is more of a question about IF authoring systems in general, but I think it’s worthwhile to ask. I tend to use Inform 7, but every IF system thus far seems to share the same assumption, that being that the gender of the noun is equal to that of the object it represents. This holds true for English, for the most part, but in other languages it’s not.
In traditional maritime parlance, ships are considered female. Yet they are clearly nonliving objects. At any rate, suppose we X SHIP, then type BOARD HER. The result would differ depending on whether the ship object was defined as feminine or neuter. But it shouldn’t. Conceptually, when it comes things that are not adult humans, it is the noun that is gendered, not the actual object.
In the English, that’s academic. But consider a language like German or Swedish, where you constantly run into situations like the child / das Kind / barnet contra the boy / der Junge / pojken. Wouldn’t it be more logical for the parser to be aware of that distinction and handle it sensibly than to go, “no, there’s clearly no ‘it’ in sight” because the object in question is defined as a ‘girl’?
What do you guys think?